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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q186-Q191):

NEW QUESTION # 186
A company recently increased its earnings per share (EPS) figure by 10%. This means that the company's:

Answer: B

Explanation:
Earnings per share (EPS) measures profitability per share. A higher EPS means a company has more earnings available for dividends or reinvestment.
* Why is Option B Correct?
* An increase in EPS improves the company's ability to pay dividends, as there are more profits available per share.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Share base widened) # EPS is based on net income, not share count.
* C (Market share risen) # Higher EPS does not mean higher revenue or market share.
* D (P/E ratio increased) # The P/E ratio depends on share price movements, not just EPS.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Earnings Analysis), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.


NEW QUESTION # 187
The return from a zero coupon bond, held to maturity, is:

Answer: A

Explanation:
A zero coupon bond does not pay periodic coupon interest. Instead, it is issued at a discount to its face value and redeemed at face value at maturity. The investor's total return, when the bond is held to maturity, is therefore the difference between the purchase price and the redemption amount. In exam terms, that return is treated as a capital uplift rather than income, because there are no cash coupon payments received during the life of the bond. While market interest rates do influence the bond's price before maturity, which is why zero coupon bonds can be very volatile if sold early, the question specifies held to maturity. If the investor holds to maturity, the cash flows are fixed as purchase price outflow and redemption value inflow, so the realised return comes entirely from the price accretion from discounted purchase price to par redemption. This is the key conceptual distinction CISI tests: coupon bonds provide income plus potential capital change, whereas zero coupon bonds deliver their return through the capital element only, assuming no default and holding to maturity.


NEW QUESTION # 188
When applying the bottom-up active management style to portfolio management, why do managers pay no attention to benchmarks?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Bottom-up active management begins with the selection of individual securities rather than starting from a benchmark, index composition, or top-down macro view. The manager's research focuses on company- specific factors such as business model strength, management quality, earnings outlook, competitive position, valuation, and balance sheet resilience. Because the investment case is built security by security, benchmark weights are not the anchor for portfolio construction, and the manager may hold stocks that are not in the benchmark or may ignore benchmark sector allocations entirely. This is why benchmarks are not central to decision-making in a bottom-up approach: the driver is the perceived attractiveness of each stock on its own merits. Option A can be a consequence, not the reason. Bottom-up portfolios often do exhibit tracking error, but tracking error is the outcome of ignoring benchmark weights, not the rationale. Option B is not defining, since holding periods vary widely across bottom-up managers. Option D is vague and does not express the core principle tested.


NEW QUESTION # 189
Which of the following would cause a coffee producer's supply curve to shift to the right?

Answer: C

Explanation:
A rightward shift in the supply curve means an increase in supply at the same price level.
* Why is Option A Correct?
* Improved harvesting methods lead to higher productivity, reducing production costs and increasing supply.
* Why Not Other Options?
* B (Reduced crop yield) # This would decrease supply (leftward shift).
* C (Consumers switching drinks) # Affects demand, not supply.
* D (Reduction in competition) # Fewer producers might reduce supply.
# Reference: Microeconomics - Supply & Demand, CISI Wealth & Investment Management.


NEW QUESTION # 190
How does standard deviation provide investors with a measure of historical volatility?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Standard deviation measures how widely returns have varied around their average over a historical period. It is calculated by taking each period's return, measuring its deviation from the mean return, squaring those deviations, averaging them, and then taking the square root to return the measure to the same units as the original data. The result is a single statistic that summarises typical dispersion of returns, which investors interpret as volatility. A higher standard deviation indicates returns have been more spread out, implying greater uncertainty and risk; a lower standard deviation indicates returns have been more stable around the average. Measuring highs and lows alone does not capture the full distribution or how frequently returns deviate from the mean. Comparing price movements to a benchmark relates more to beta or tracking error, not standalone volatility. Analysing historical price movements is too broad and does not define the statistic. CISI questions typically focus on the precise interpretation: standard deviation quantifies the degree of fluctuation around the mean, providing a historical volatility measure that is comparable across assets and portfolios.


NEW QUESTION # 191
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